So I was having a conversation the other day with the pharmacist. We were discussing the misnomer "non-narcotic" used in a commercial for a popular prescription sleep aid.
I was wondering if maybe I didn't quite understand the word NARCOTIC because this particular commercial made it sound as if its product was not addictive. But I also KNOW this particular medication is classified as a schedule IV controlled substance.
What's going on?
Etymology: Middle English narkotik, from Middle French narcotique, from Medieval Latin narcoticus, from Greek narkōtikos
Date: 14th century
1 a: a drug (as opium or morphine) that in moderate doses dulls the senses, relieves pain, and induces profound sleep but in excessive doses causes stupor, coma, or convulsions b: a drug (as marijuana or LSD) subject to restriction similar to that of addictive narcotics whether physiologically addictive and narcotic or not
So by definition this particular prescription IS A NARCOTIC! And being classified as a controlled substance by the DEA means it has a high potential for abuse.
Then HOW exactly can the drug company even call this product NON-NARCOTIC? It's FALSE ADVERTISING. I've gone to the drug company's website to see if they have this false information written anywhere on their page. Nope. It should definitely NOT be heard in a voice over for their product either!
remember if it sounds too good to be true...talk to your doctor or pharmacist!